/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
I have heard some people claim that British Colonialism was less bad to the natives as compared to French, Portuguese or Spanish Colonialism. Is this true?
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How did the idea of tax havens comes about? When were the first tax havens created and how did they become widespread for Corporate tax planning?
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Why is unconditional jus soli almost completely exclusive to the Americas, and not say, Australia, which was colonised by foreigners in a similar way?
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